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Posted: September 18th, 2022
Medical Surgical Nursing Interview Quiz
Medical Surgical Nursing Interview Quiz
1. In which type of lung Cancer is Gynecomastia common:
(a) Small cell
(b) Large cell.
(c) Epidermoid
(d) Adeno Ca
2. Which of the following IOP lowering drug causes dry mouth:
(a) Brimonidine
(b) Brinzolamide
(c) Tafluprost
(d) Timolol
3. Most common premalignant oral lesion is:
(a) Leukoplekia
(b) Submucus fibrosis
(c) Oral lichen planus
(d) Oral hairy leukoplakia
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4. Burnt Rope Odour is associated with which poisoning:
(a) Hydrogen sulphide
(b) Cyannide
(c) Nirtobenzene
(d) Cannabis
5. Back’s triad consist of all except:
(a) Hypotension
(b) Distended neck veins
(c) Muffled heart sounds
(d) Decrease JVP
6. Ideal body weight is used in dosage calculation for:
(a) Suxamethonium
(b) Vecuronium
(c) Bupivacaine
(d) Adrenaline
7. PGMI classification is used for
(a) Brain
(b) Breast
(c) Liver
(d) Retinoblstoma
8. A client is to receive antivenin following a snake bite. Before administering the antivenin, the nurse should give priority to:
(a) Administering a local anesthetic
(b) Checking for an allergic response
(c) Administering an anxiolytic
(d) Withholding fluids for 6–8 hours
9. The emergency room staff is practicing for its annual disaster drill. According to disaster triage, which of the following four clients would be cared for last?
(a) A client with a Pneumothorax
(b) A client with 70% TBSA full thickness burns
(c) A client with fractures of the tibia and fibula
(d) A client with smoke inhalation injuries
10. Direct pressure to a deep laceration on the client’s lower leg has failed to stop the bleeding. The nurse’s next action should be able to:
(a) Place a tourniquet proximal to the laceration
(b) Elevate the leg above the level of the heart
(c) Cover the laceration and apply an ice compress
(d) Apply pressure to the femoral artery
11. What is your first action after a shock is delivered?
(a) Wait for the AED to analyze the patient
(b) Check pulse
(c) Clear the patient
(d) Begin CPR
12. The nurse is preparing to administer Ringer’s lactate to a client with hypovolaemic shock. Which intervention is important in helping to stabilize the client’s condition?
(a) Warming the intravenous fluids
(b) Determining whether the client can take oral fluids
(c) Checking for the strength of pedal pulses
(d) Obtaining the specific gravity of the urine
13. An unresponsive client is admitted to the emergency room with a history of diabetes mellitus. The client’s skin is cold and clammy, and her blood pressure reading is 82/56. The first step in emergency treatment of the client’s symptoms would be:
(a) Checking the client’s blood sugar
(b) Administering intravenous dextrose
(c) Intubation and ventilator support
(d) Administering regular insulin
14. The nurse is called to the room of a client experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which action would the nurse perform first?
(a) Loosen restrictive clothing
(b) Turn the client to the side-lying position
(c) Ensure patency of the client’s airway
(d) Document the sequence of the client’s movements
15. Using the coding system for triaging mass casualties, which of the following clients would receive treatment first?
(a) The client with a black tag
(b) The client with a green tag
(c) The client with a yellow tag
(d) The client with a red tag
16. The client sustains a contusion of the eyeball following a traumatic injury with a blunt object which intervention is initiated immediately?
(a) Notify the physician
(b) Irrigate the eye with cool water
(c) Apply ice to the affected eye
(d) Accompany the client to the emergency room
17. The nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative from a total thyroidectomy. The nurse determines it is necessary to call the rapid response team (RRT) when the client displays which of the following?
(a) Blood pressure of 150/92 mm Hg
(b) Harsh, high-pitched respiratory sounds
(c) Weak voice and / or hoarseness
(d) Decreased deep tendon reflexes
18. A client is scheduled for several tests. Which test should be performed after the thyroid function tests?
(a) Ultrasound of the carotid arteries
(b) EEG
(c) Chest X-ray
(d) Contrast CT
19. The nurse is caring for a client who has experienced a cerebral vascular accident. The client is displaying oliguria and hyponatremia. The nurse suspects which of the following disorders?
(a) Thyrotoxic crisis
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Primary adrenocortical insufficiency
(d) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic harmone (SIADH)
20. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?
(a) Glucose
(b) Hemoglobin
(c) Creatinine
(d) Sodium
Medical Surgical Nursing Objective Quiz
1. An adult has had a total laryngectomy. The nurse is discussing options for verbal communication with the client. Which statement indicates the client understands the available options for verbal communication?
(a) “Because of the arthritis in my hands, I think the voice button method would be easiest to use.”
(b) “By the time I leave the hospital, I will be able to talk.”
(c) “If I use the esophageal speech, my voice will be high pitched and soft.”
(d) “Using an artificial larynx will make me sound sort of monotone”.
2. The nurse is checking tuberculin skin test results at a health clinic. One client has an area of induration measuring 12 mm in diameter. What does this finding indicate?
(a) This finding is a normal reading.
(b) This finding indicates active TB.
(c) This is a positive reaction and can indicate exposure to TB.
(d) This client needs to come back in two more days and let the nurse look at the area of induration again.
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3. Theophylline ethylnediamide is administered to a client with COPD to _____
(a) Reduce bronchial secretions
(b) Relax bronchial smooth muscle
(c) Decrease alveolar elasticity
(d) Decrease ventilation-perfusion mismatch
4. The patient is asked to breathe his expired air through a reservoir bag. This type of intervention is prescribed for a client with _______
(a) Corpulmonale
(b) Pulmonary edema
(c) Atlectasis
(d) Alkalosis
5. ABG results shows – PH- 7.50, PaO2-80, PaCO2-50, Bi carbonate-30. This report suggestive of
(a) Compensated respiratory alkalosis
(b) Compensated respiratory acidosis
(c) Compensated metabolic acidosis
(d) Compensated metabolic alkalosis
6. The client is admitted in intensive care with following features – Potassium 6 mEq/L, peaked t waves in ECG and known history of Heart failure. What is the first prescription physician may order to correct electrolyte balance?
(a) 5mcg/kg/min Dopamine in NS
(b) Pottasium chloride in 5% DNS
(c) 12 units of insulin in 25% glucose
(d) Digoxin in 0.9% NS
7. Renin –Angiotensin-Aldosterone mechanism that occurs due to ________
(a) Heart block
(b) Hypertension
(c) Liver Failure
(d) Renal failure
8. The tendelenberg position increases ______. Thus, this position is used cautiously in patient who had MI with Shock.
(a) Preload
(b) Afterload
(c) Contractility
(d) Heart rate
9. The cardiac marker is most likely to be tested for a client who had a history of suspected Myocardial Ischemia 2 weeks back.
(a) CK-MB
(b) CK
(c) Myoglobin
(d) Troponin I
10. Roth Spots,Oscler Nodes,Splinter Hemmorrages are associated with _______
(a) Rhematic arthritis
(b) Osteoid Arthritis
(c) Corpulmonale
(d) Infective endocarditis
11. Which of the following measure would be most appropriate while caring skeletal traction patient for fracture femur?
(a) Maintaining client in supine position
(b) Removing weights temporarily while repositioning patient
(c) Inspect the pin site every 8 hours
(d) Maintaining foot in planter flexion
12. The plan of care for a client with hypertension taking propranolol would include__________
(a) Instruct the client to discontinue the drug if vomiting occurs
(b) Instruct the client to notify the physician of irregular and slow heart rate
(c) Monitor PTT every week
(d) Monitor BP and adjust the medication accordingly
13. The commonest side effect of Gentamycin is __________
(a) Ascitis
(b) Confusion
(c) Cardiac dysrhythmias
(d) Ototoxcity
14. Among the following, which one of the symptom is not typically associated with Peripheral Artery Disease?
(a) Cool Skin
(b) Decreased pulse or absence of pulse
(c) Ankle edema
(d) Intermittent claudication
15. Among the following, which nursing intervention would be most appropriate to promote circulation for a client with Peripheral Artery occlusive disease?
(a) Regular walking exercise
(b) Keep the extremities elevated slightly
(c) Warm compress
(d) Massage calf muscles if pain occurs
16. The triad of Symptoms –Drop in Blood Pressure, Increase in JVP and Muffled heart sounds are the clinical features of ____
(a) Cardiac Shock
(b) Cardiac tamponade
(c) Cardiac failure
(d) Aortic aneurysms
17. The type of intervention that nurse may use to treat the gangrene formation of a client who had open fracture with deeper wounds.
(a) Elevate the affected limb and dry heat application
(b) Wound care using only betadine and Normal saline
(c) Wound care using only KMNO4 and Normal saline
(d) Wound care using only H2O2 and Normal saline
18. Which one act as a “counter traction” when skeletal traction is applied at lower limb for Hip fracture?
(a) Patient body weight
(b) External Weights applied
(c) Pulley and wire
(d) Hip joint in which steinmann pin is applied
19. The fracture that occurred due to extreme ligament pull is called as _____
(a) Complex fracture
(b) Greenstick fracture
(c) Comminuted fracture
(d) Avulsion frature
20. The position that commonly advised to the client who had undergone Total Hip Replacement is
(a) Abduction of hip
(b) Adduction of hip
(c) Flexion of hip
(d) Extension of hip
Medical Surgical Nursing Old Questions
1. Biot’s Respiration is a characteristic manifestation of _______
(a) CSF leakage
(b) Dysfunction of Hypothalamus
(c) Increases ICP
(d) Increased MAP
2. Kernig’s sign and Brudzinski sign are elicited due to __________
(a) Menigeal tear
(b) Meningeal irritation
(c) Meningeal edema
(d) Meningeal fistula
3. Halo’s sign is characteristic sign that reveal_____
(a) Presence of blood in CSF
(b) Presence of CSF in Blood
(c) Presence of CSF in dressing material
(d) Presence of blood in dressing material
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4. Among the following, which position has to be avoided for client suffering from increased Intra Cranial Pressure?
(a) Head Midline
(b) Head turned to one side
(c) Neck in neutral position
(d) Head of bed elevated to 30 degrees
5. Among the following, which intervention is most appropriate to decrease Increased Intra Cranial Pressure?
(a) Maintaining Hyperthermia
(b) Maintaining fluid balance
(c) Hyperventilation
(d) Helminch maneuver
6. The clinical feature of spinal shock followed by spinal cord injury is _____________
(a) Hyperreflexia
(b) Positive reflexes
(c) Reflex emptying of the bladder
(d) Inability to elicit a Babinski’s reflex
7. The Nurse places the personal items of the hemiplegic patient at affected side as part of rehabilitation. This action is suggestive of ________problem identified by Nurse while performing assessment.
(a) Unilateral neglect
(b) Impaired Physical Mobility
(c) Activity Intolerance
(d) Hemiparesis
8. Mr.X is admitted in Emergency Unit with the complaints of severe muscle weakness requires intubation. The history of the client reveals he is taking neostigmine for last 30 days. The type of crisis the client experiences is____
(a) Adrenergic crisis
(b) Parkinson’s crisis
(c) Myasthenia crisis
(d) Hypertensive crisis
9. The client is applied of cervical tongs for cervical injury in emergency department. What action that nurse should avoid while caring a client?
(a) Use of Rotorest bed
(b) Removing weights to reposition the client
(c) Assessing the weights for integrity
(d) Compare the ordered traction with amount in use
10. What instruction is most appropriate in patient with trigeminal neuralgia to prevent triggering the pain?
(a) Drink iced foods
(b) Avoid oral hygiene
(c) Apply warm compresses
(d) Chew on the unaffected side
11. The priority nursing intervention is a client after Bronchoscopy procedure for “Suspected malignancy” is _________
(a) Assessment Blood gas and SaO2
(b) Assessment the speech and voice.
(c) Assessment the site for internal bleeding.
(d) Send tissue specimen to the lab immediately for Biopsy.
12. The client was admitted in recovery unit after tonsillectomy. What type of changes in behavior of the patient that the Nurse should report to the surgeon immediately?
(a) Frequent complaints of thirst
(b) Frequent complaints of headache
(c) Frequent complaints of pain while swallowing
(d) Frequent complaints of swallowing of saliva
13. Peak Expiratory Flow Rate (PEFR) is an objective assessment that is done to identify the prognosis of _____________ client.
(a) Asthma
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Mechanically ventilated
(d) Pneumothorax
14. The patient is choking due to suspected foreign body in upper airway. The maneuver that is performed immediately is ______
(a) Murphy Maneuver
(b) Epley maneuver
(c) Heimlich maneuver
(d) Semont maneuver
15. Among the following, which one is NOT the commonest cause of Hospital Acquired Pneumonia?
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) Pseudomonus aeruginosa
(c) Klebisiella pnemoniae
(d) Hemophilis Influenza
16. Flail chest is refers to ___________
(a) On expiration Fractured rib segment bulges out
(b) On inspiration Fractured rib segment bulges out
(c) On expiration Fracture rib segment sucked in
(d) Abnormal cavitation of chest
17. Among the following, which one delivery system can deliver high concentration Oxygen?
(a) Partial rebreather mask
(b) Venturi Mask
(c) Non rebreather mask
(d) Simple mask
18. Postural drainage is commonly performed on _____client.
(a) Pleural effusion
(b) Pulmonary edema
(c) COPD
(d) Corpulmonale
19. Among the following clients, who is at the high risk of developing pulmonary embolism?
(a) Client who had pelvic fracture
(b) Client who received Aminophyline
(c) Client who had mechanically ventilated
(d) Client who had lobectomy surgery
20. The best assessment that helps to identify the lung expansion following the placement Intercostal drainage(water seal drainage) for a client who is suffering from Pnemothorax is ______
(a) Movement of fluid in chest tube while inspiration and expiration
(b) Presence of few air bubbles in water seal
(c) Chest X-ray
(d) Bilateral air entry in auscultation
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